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Three Days and Three Nights


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#1 rstrats

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Posted 20 May 2013 - 12:15 PM

Whenever the three days and three nights of Matthew 12:40 is brought up in a “discussion” with 6th day crucifixion proponents, they frequently argue that it is a Jewish idiom for counting any part of a day as a whole day. I wonder if anyone has documentation that shows that a phrase stating a specific number of days as well as a specific number of nights was ever used in the first century or before when it absolutely couldn't have included at least a part of each one of the specific number of days and at least a part of each one of the specific number of nights?

#2 Evangelion

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Posted 21 May 2013 - 05:41 AM

Whenever the three days and three nights of Matthew 12:40 is brought up in a “discussion” with 6th day crucifixion proponents, they frequently argue that it is a Jewish idiom for counting any part of a day as a whole day.


I have not come across this argument before. It sounds very odd. You should ask people to provide evidence for their claim.

I wonder if anyone has documentation that shows that a phrase stating a specific number of days as well as a specific number of nights was ever used in the first century or before when it absolutely couldn't have included at least a part of each one of the specific number of days and at least a part of each one of the specific number of nights?


I'm afraid I don't know. 'Three days' always seems to mean just three days in the NT.

:confused:
'Abba Antony said, "A time is coming when men will go mad, and when they see someone who is not mad, they will attack him saying, 'You are mad, you are not like us.'"'

Ward, Benedicta. The Sayings of the Desert Fathers (2006), Antony 25, p. 5.

Credo.

#3 Greb

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Posted 21 May 2013 - 11:48 PM

I also came across this explanation in a couple of commentaries recently (below). The Esther and 1 Samuel quotes refer to people going 3 days and 3 nights without water or food - but as far as I am aware, this is possible.

The period during which He was to lie in the grave is here expressed in round numbers, according to the Jewish way of speaking, which was to regard any part of a day, however small, included within a period of days, as a full day. (See 1Sa 30:12, 13; Es 4:16; 5:1; Mt 27:63, 64, &c.). (JFB)


“Three days and three nights” is from Jnh 1:17. In Jewish reckoning, a period of light and darkness makes a “day” (onah), and any part of a “day” is considered as the whole. Since Jesus arose on the third day (Mt 16:21; 27:63–64), which was the first day of the week (28:1), the language of three days and nights does not mean 72 hours (see Est 4:16; 5:1) but “part of Friday, all of Saturday, and part of Sunday.” (Apologetics Study Bible)



#4 LivingInParadise

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Posted 22 May 2013 - 02:04 AM

If Jesus rose after 3 days + 3 nights this would be the 4th day - so there's obviously some idiom here - either 3 days and 3 nights really means the 3rd day or the 3rd day really means the 4th day. (This can be demonstrated from many Scriptures)

So which is it?

"2Ki 18:9 In the fourth year of King Hezekiah, which was the seventh year of Hoshea son of Elah, king of Israel, Shalmaneser king of Assyria came up against Samaria and besieged it, 10 and at the end of three years he took it. In the sixth year of Hezekiah, which was the ninth year of Hoshea king of Israel, Samaria was taken."

I find this convincing that Hebrew idiom really means the lesser figure ie: Jesus rose on the 3rd day: NOT after 3 days + 3 nights

#5 Evangelion

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Posted 22 May 2013 - 03:25 AM

Hmm, this is interesting. Thanks guys!

:)
'Abba Antony said, "A time is coming when men will go mad, and when they see someone who is not mad, they will attack him saying, 'You are mad, you are not like us.'"'

Ward, Benedicta. The Sayings of the Desert Fathers (2006), Antony 25, p. 5.

Credo.

#6 rstrats

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Posted 22 May 2013 - 04:52 AM

Evangelion,

re: " You should ask people to provide evidence for their claim."

Yes, I should have addressed the OP to those who think that the resurrection took place on the 6th day of the week.

#7 rstrats

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Posted 22 May 2013 - 05:07 AM

Greb,

re: " The Esther and 1 Samuel quotes refer to people going 3 days and 3 nights without water or food..."


I'm not sure of your position. Are you offering Esther and Samuel as examples of instances where a specific number of days as well as a specific number of nights was stated when they absolutely couldn't have included at least a part of each one of the specific number of days and at least a part of each one of the specific number of nights?

#8 Greb

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Posted 28 May 2013 - 10:21 PM

Greb,

re: " The Esther and 1 Samuel quotes refer to people going 3 days and 3 nights without water or food..."


I'm not sure of your position. Are you offering Esther and Samuel as examples of instances where a specific number of days as well as a specific number of nights was stated when they absolutely couldn't have included at least a part of each one of the specific number of days and at least a part of each one of the specific number of nights?


No, I wasn't offering Esther and Samuel as examples of this, just noting that these are the only examples provided by the commentators I quoted. Personally I can't see that the Esther and Samuel references prove anything either way.

I thought that Jesus died on Wednesday and was resurrected late on Saturday.

#9 rstrats

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Posted 26 July 2013 - 06:29 PM

Someone new looking in may know of some writing.

#10 rstrats

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Posted 10 April 2015 - 04:20 AM

Perhaps a slight rewording of the OP will make it a bit more clear: Whenever the three days and three nights of Matthew 12:40 is brought up in a "discussion" with 6th day of the week crucifixion folks, they frequently assert that it is using common Jewish idiomatic language. I wonder if anyone (who thinks that the crucifixion took place on the 6th day of the week and who thinks that the "heart of the earth" means the tomb) knows of any writing that shows an example from the first century or before regarding a period of time that is said to consist of a specific number of days and/or a specific number of nights where the period of time absolutely couldn't have included at least a part of each one of the specific number of days and at least a part of each one of the specific number of nights? If it is using common idiomatic language, there ought to be examples of that usage in order to be able to make that assertion.



#11 rstrats

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Posted 17 January 2018 - 11:53 AM


1. The Messiah said that He would be three days and three nights in the "heart of the earth" 
 
2. There are those who think that the crucifixion took place on the 6th day of the week with the resurrection taking place on the 1st day of the week.
 
3. Of those, there are some who think that the "heart of the earth" is referring to the tomb.
 
4. A 6th day of the week crucifixion/1st day of the week resurrection allows for only 2 nights to be involved with His time in the tomb.
 
5. To account for the lack of a 3rd night, some of those  mentioned above have said that the Messiah was employing common figure of speech/colloquial language.
 
6. I am simply asking anyone who thinks that it was common,  to  provide examples to support that belief; i.e., instances where a daytime or a night time was forecast or said to be involved with an event when no part of the daytime and/or no part of the night time could have occurred. 





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